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NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following age ranges is considered the normal eruption of permanent canine teeth in dogs?
- A. 20-24 weeks
- B. 4-8 weeks
- C. 28-32 weeks
- D. 12-16 weeks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Each of the following are the normal ages of eruption of a dog's permanent teeth:
*Canines: between 12 and 16 weeks
*Incisors: between 12 and 16 weeks
*Premolars: between 16 and 20 weeks
*Molars: between 16 and 20 weeks
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which regulatory agency controls the development, testing, and approval of topical medications used in parasite prevention?
- A. Environmental Protection Agency
- B. United States Pharmacopoeia
- C. United States Department of Agriculture
- D. Food and Drug Administration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topical parasiticides are regulated by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). Topical parasiticides include amitraz, imidacloprid, fipronil, and permethrin. In addition to pesticides, the EPA Pesticide Regulation Division regulates insecticides and rodenticides.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates veterinary drugs and devices, pet foods, livestock feeds, prescription and non-prescription drugs, vaccines, and blood products. The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) oversees the area of veterinary medicine that aims to prevent, treat, or diagnose animal diseases. The United States Pharmacopoeia (USP) compiles a list of all drugs into one place.
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the action of prostaglandin F2 (PGF2) alpha in animals?
- A. Blocks FSH release
- B. Follicular maturation
- C. Smooth muscle contraction of the epididymis
- D. Maintenance of pregnancy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Various hormones are responsible for various controls in the reproductive tracts of males and females.
PGF2 alpha is a fatty acid that the uterine endometrium produces. It causes luteolysis and uterine smooth muscle contraction in the female and epididymal smooth muscle contraction in the testes of the male.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is a glycoprotein produced by the anterior pituitary. It is responsible for follicular growth and a female's estrogen production. In the male, it aids with spermiogenesis (the end stage of spermatogenesis, leading to full maturation of the sperm).
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is also a glycoprotein produced in the anterior pituitary. It functions to aid in follicular maturation, progesterone production, and luteinization in females while inducing testosterone production in males.
Progesterone is an androgenous steroid produced in the corpus luteum of the ovary. It is responsible for pregnancy maintenance and alveolar mammary growth in females.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A 10-lb cat has treatment orders for Clavamox at 12.5 mg/kg administered twice daily for 7 days. The Clavamox drops are reconstituted at 62.5 mg/mL and the bottle contains 10 mL.
How much should be administered at each dose?
- A. 2.0 mL
- B. 0.9 mL
- C. 0.45 mL
- D. 1.8 mL
Answer: B
Explanation:
Convert patient body weight from pounds to kilograms: 10 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 4.55 kg Calculate dose in mg: 4.55 kg x (12.5 mg/kg) = 56.8 mg per dose Convert dose from mg to ml: 56.8 mg / (62.5 mg/mL) = 0.9 mL per dose
NEW QUESTION # 48
You have a cow you determine to be an ASA III-V. The patient presents for cesarean section because of dystocia, and she requires general anesthesi a. The fetus is viable. Which of the following should you avoid using before the delivery of the fetus?
- A. Alpha2-agonists
- B. Opioids after delivery
- C. Ketamine-based induction
- D. Epidural anesthesia
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a cow with a live fetus requiring general anesthesia for a c-section, recommended example protocol and considerations include:
*No premedication
*Ketamine-based induction protocol
*Maintenance with iso or sevoflurane
*Perform an epidural to provide analgesia and reduce the need for other analgesics
*Minimize anesthesia time
However, avoid these agents or circumstances:
*Alpha2-agonists
*Acepromazine
*Opioids before delivery - if the epidural is insufficient post-delivery pain management, an opioid can be considered.
When selecting an anesthetic protocol, you must keep in mind the side effect profile of the drugs, the metabolism, how they may affect the fetus, and any anesthetic complications that may result from the use of a specific protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 49
All of the following pain scales have been validated for use in small animals. All are approved for use by the American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA's 2022 Pain Management Guidelines for Dogs and Cats), except:
- A. Feline Musculoskeletal Pain Index (FMPI)
- B. Feline Grimace Scale
- C. UNESP-Botucatu Multidimensional Composite Pain Scale
- D. Colorado Feline Acute Pain Scale
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the 2020 AAHA Pain Management Guidelines, a veterinarian or vet technician can use the Colorado Feline Acute Pain Scale to monitor acute pain. It provides a means to monitor pain and is easy to use. However, it has yet to be validated scientifically. It is a commonly-used scale, however, upon which other pain scales have been based.
The UNESP-Botucatu Multidimensional Composite Pain Scale is also used to monitor acute pain, is moderately easy to use, can be used by vets and techs, and has been scientifically validated.
The Feline Grimace Scale is also used by vets and techs for monitoring acute pain. It is simple to use and has been scientifically validated. It can be used for screening or monitoring for pain.
Finally, the FMPI is used to evaluate cats for chronic pain and osteoarthritis specifically, and is performed by an owner, simple to use, and validated.
NEW QUESTION # 50
You perform a urine-specific gravity test on a patient with azotemi
a. You have a concern because you find the concentration is 1.010. We define this by what term, and does this represent a specific gravity that is higher, equal to, or less than plasma?
- A. Isosthenuric; less than
- B. Isosthenuric; equal to
- C. Hyposthenuric; less than
- D. Hypersthenuric; more than
Answer: B
Explanation:
When evaluating urine, we compare the density of the liquid to distilled water. Distilled water is 1.00.
Urine-specific gravity (USG) must be interpreted in the face of dehydration, primary underlying kidney disease, or post-renal causes of concern. It can be used to evaluate the kidneys' ability to concentrate from the renal tubules or dilute filtrates and helps in assessing if the body can maintain osmotic and water balance.
-sthen = strength
-iso = the same
-hypo = less than
-hyper = greater than
Isosthenuria is a fixed specific gravity recognized as 1.008 to 1.013 (depending on the species). This suggests that the glomerular filtrate is at the same specific gravity as the plasma. It isn't diluted nor concentrated and represents kidney disease. (65% of the kidneys' function no longer exists once this occurs). Isosthenuria in the presence of azotemia (elevated BUN/Crea) confirms kidney disease. We cannot discern if it is reversible or not simply because it is present.
While normally, a single USG without comparison doesn't reflect kidney function or abnormality, in the face of azotemia, we need to rehydrate a patient and re-evaluate USG after fluid therapy has ceased to determine if the underlying disease remains. A reading of 1.010 in the middle of the day in a well-hydrated patient may still be normal, and the patient may not have underlying renal disease.
Hyposthenuria describes USG < 1.008. This suggests the proper ability of the tubules to dilute urine, lowering the specific gravity of plasma.
Hypersthenuria or baruria occurs at > 1.012-1.013 (depending on species). Here, the tubules are concentrating water to hold on to it, and the USG is higher than the plasma.
Ideally, you want to use a species-specific refractometer to evaluate USG because standard human refractometers can cause falsely high or falsely lower readings with various species, from cats to exotics and more.
NEW QUESTION # 51
For which of the following items would gas sterilization methods not be appropriate?
- A. Rubber
- B. Plastics
- C. Endoscopes
- D. Paper and linen
Answer: D
Explanation:
Gas chemical sterilization, such as ethylene oxide (EO) or hydrogen peroxide gas plasma allows the sterilization of heat or moisture sensitive equipment such as endoscopes, plastics, cameras, optics, catheters, or rubber. However, it is costly, potentially hazardous, and time-consuming. Items that can be steam-sterilized do not need this sterilization, including paper and linens.
This type of sterilization, due to cost and hazard mitigation needs, is not commonly used in veterinary medicine.
NEW QUESTION # 52
The presence of hemolysis can interfere with some laboratory diagnostic test results. All of the following can lead to hemolysis, except:
- A. Using butterfly needles for blood draws
- B. Too rough a transfer of blood from the syringe to the collection vessel
- C. Difficult patient
- D. Too much suction placed on the syringe
Answer: A
Explanation:
Hemolysis refers to the destruction, lysis, and rupture of a red blood cell. This can occur for various reasons, both inside the body and outside. When it occurs outside the body, it can occur with:
*Difficult blood draws (patient is wiggly, the patient is dehydrated, the patient moves halfway through, and you need to reposition the needle, to name a few)
*Too much pressure was placed on the syringe when drawing the blood back
*Too rough of a transfer of the blood from the syringe to the collection tube
*Overly forceful mixing of the blood once collected
Using a butterfly needle, in and of itself, doesn't trigger hemolysis. However, generally, the smaller needle size may increase the risk of occurrence with a slow blood draw. On the other hand, patients (especially small ones and juveniles) sometimes tolerate them better. Hence, the risk of hemolysis drops because the patient is less likely to be wiggly, pull away, or require needle repositioning.
NEW QUESTION # 53
When performing a microscopic examination of urine sediment, a high power field is used to enumerate which of the following?
- A. Epithelial cells
- B. Microorganisms
- C. Casts
- D. Crystals
Answer: A
Explanation:
A high-power (HPF) is used to quantify (# per HPF) epithelial cells when performing a microscopic examination of urine. A HPF is also used to enumerate red blood cells and leukocytes. A HPF uses 400x magnification.
A lower power field is used to enumerate casts. A high power field is used to identify, not enumerate, microorganisms and crystals.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Elevations in BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and CREA (creatinine) can occur for various reasons. When the BUN is elevated with a normal CREA, this may occur for all of the following reasons. except:
- A. Gastrointestinal blood loss
- B. Dehydration
- C. Urethral obstruction
- D. Sarcopenia
Answer: C
Explanation:
Creatinine is a by-product of muscle metabolism, almost constantly produced and filtered by the kidneys. However, while BUN tends to be dynamic, CREA remains more stable. Thus, changes in CREA tend to occur with primary kidney disease (a malfunction of the glomeruli) or with increased muscle activity. The CREA levels may be altered by shock (prerenal factor), dehydration, primary kidney disease (renal), and post-renal abnormalities, including urethral obstruction.
Because it is a by-product of muscle metabolism, patients with sarcopenia (natural loss of muscle with aging) won't have the ability to increase CREA as significantly relative to the BUN, simply because they lack the muscle component. So, animals with low muscle mass may still be azotemic (elevated BUN/CREA) but cannot manifest the number as high as expected. Thus, the numbers need to be interpreted based on the reference ranges and patient findings.
Alternatively, BUN is not a specific kidney enzyme. It represents the end product of protein metabolism primarily excreted via the kidneys. BUN levels help evaluate glomerular filtration and kidney function, as the renal tubules reabsorb 40% of BUN. But it is more dynamic than that CREA. Changes to BUN can occur without kidney involvement, and these include:
*Bleeding in the GI tract
*Large protein meal ingestion and absorption
*The presence of a fever
*Steroid use
BUN may be lower than normal in cases of anorexia, kidney tubular damage, or liver disease.
NEW QUESTION # 55
If a "triple drip" is being used as IV maintenance of general anesthesia in horses, what drugs are being administered?
- A. Xylazine, ketamine, and guaifenesin
- B. Etomidate, xylazine, and ketamine
- C. Tiletamine, ketamine, and xylazine
- D. Propofol, ketamine, and guaifenesin
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following clinical signs describes no or mild levels of pain in a dog?
- A. General anxiety and restlessness
- B. Licking a surgical incision or wound
- C. Vocalization when touched
- D. Curious to look outside while sitting on a blanket
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Colorado Acute Pain Scale is a useful system for grading pain in dogs.
*0: Comfortable, happy, non-tender wound site (Example: Curious to look outside while sitting on a blanket)
*1: Mild pain, distraction, unsettled behavior
*2: Wimpers, prefers to remain recumbent, resists palpation of the wound site
*3: Crying, guarding, tense, does not want to move, variable response when touched
*4: Groaning or screaming, potentially unresponsive
NEW QUESTION # 57
A veterinarian is treating a horse with acute colic. Which of the following medications may be administered?
- A. All are routinely used
- B. Butorphanol (opioid)
- C. Flunixin meglumine (NSAID)
- D. Detomidine (alpha-2 agonist)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 58
Where is the dura mater found?
- A. Covering the heart
- B. Covering the brain and spinal cord
- C. Lining the thorax
- D. Covering the lungs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The connective tissue layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord are the meninges. The dura mater is the tough outermost layer of connective tissue that covers and protects the brain and spinal cord. The subsequent layers include the arachnoid and the pia mater. The connective tissue facilitates nutrient and oxygen delivery to the brain and cord.
The pericardium is the membrane that covers the heart. Visceral pleura is the membrane that covers the lungs. Parietal pleura is the membrane that lines the thorax.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A patient presents after a short-distance fall with evidence of bleeding from the mouth. You will need to understand how this patient is managed surgically so that you can properly assess how they do post-op, ensure they eat properly, and more. The doctor diagnosed the most commonly seen jaw trauma, a symphyseal separation.
Most cases of a simple separation can be repaired using what method?
- A. External fixation
- B. Interdental wire
- C. A cerclage wire
- D. Anchor fracture with adjacent teeth
Answer: C
Explanation:
One of the most common traumas seen with the jaw in dogs and cats occurs secondary to falls and is referred to as a symphyseal separation. This occurs when the left and right mandibles separate at the fibrous union, rostrally. It is often easily repaired with a simple cerclage wire, positioned behind the canine teeth. This provides stability as the symphysis repairs itself. Often, this occurs rapidly, in about a month.
More involved fractures may require additional intervention. These may include interdental wire placement, external fixation, and/or the anchoring of a fracture using adjacent teeth to help brace. Teeth that are diseased, however, should be removed before any fracture repair.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which muscle group is ideal for intramuscular injections in dogs and cats?
- A. Gluteus
- B. Epaxial
- C. Pectoral
- D. Trapezius
Answer: B
Explanation:
The epaxial muscles are located in the lumbosacral region, on either side of the rear portion of the spine. They are preferred for intramuscular injections and provide the most predictable and reliable absorption of the drug. They are easily accessed, and injections here are easily tolerated by the patient. This route is appropriate for small volume injections.
NEW QUESTION # 61
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